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by Dave Clark
Yes, though they are actually God's Laws, God, Himself, does
call them the "Law of Moses"
(Mal 4:4);
and Jesus Christ, too
(Luk 24:44).
Let us not be deceived, however, as to God's meaning. Ellen G. White also recognized
the danger of misconstruing this misnomer of the "Law of Moses." She said:
Review and Herald, 05/06/1875, par.12:
"Moses of himself framed no law. Christ ... gave to Moses statutes and
requirements necessary to a living religion and to govern the people of God.
Christians commit a terrible mistake in calling this law severe and arbitrary, and
then contrasting it with the gospel and mission of Christ in his ministry on earth,
as though he were in opposition to the just precepts which they call the law of
Moses."
After quoting a statute found in
Deuteronomy 24:14-15
and another one in
Leviticus 19:13,
she makes three points, I feel, regarding all of God's Statutes, that (#1) these are commandments,
(#2) they are part of the law of God written by Moses in a book, and (#3) they
are still binding in our day:
Review and Herald, 12/18/1894, par.7:
"The Lord Jesus gave these commandments from the pillar of cloud, and Moses
repeated them to the children of Israel and wrote them in a book, that they
might not depart from righteousness. We are under obligation to
fulfill these specifications; for in so doing we fulfill the specifications
of the law of God."
Thus, our modern churches have made the "Law of Moses"
into a terrible misnomer — in particular, when they claim the "Law
of Moses" has been nailed to the cross. Note that Jesus Christ, Himself, denies this
(Mat 5:17-19).
The Apostle Paul, also, denies this
(Rom 3:31;
Rom 7:12-13;
Gal 3:21).
In point of fact, you'll never find, either in the Bible or in Ellen White's
writings, that any statute was ever abolished.
What, then, are the churches trying to accomplish with such a claim? You
can be sure satan is behind it but, whatever it is,
they end up throwing out the baby with the bath-water when they do so!
First off... Do they realize that the entire first five books of our
modern-day Bible constitute the "Law of Moses" as defined by both the Old and
New Testaments of that Bible? The "Torah" (Hebrew) and the "Pentateuch"
(Greek) are the first five books of the Bible! The Bible uses the "Law of
Moses," the "Torah," and the "Pentateuch" all as synonyms of each
other. It is these first five "books" of the Bible,
including the Commandments, which were entirely "written in a book" and
placed in the side of the Ark of the Covenant. The following is the proof text
for this and please note the Hebrew word for "law" (Strong's H8451)
in the following verse is the Torah:
Deu 31:26:
"Take this book of the law,8451
and put it in the side of the ark of the covenant of the LORD your God..."
We cannot pick and choose amongst God's Law (categorized as the
Commandments, the Statutes, and the Judgments: see
Gen 26:5;
Lev 18:4-5;
Lev 18:26;
Lev 19:19;
Lev 19:37;
Lev 20:8;
Lev 20:22;
Lev 25:18;
Lev 26:3;
Lev 26:15;
Lev 26:43;
1Ki 2:3;
1Ki 3:14;
1Ki 6:12;
1Ki 9:4-6;
1Ki 11:11;
1Ki 11:33-34;
1Ki 11:38;
2Ki 17:13;
1Ch 28:7;
1Ch 29:19;
2Ch 7:17;
2Ch 7:19;
2Ch 19:10;
Ezr 7:10;
Neh 10:29;
Psa 50:16;
Psa 89:31-32;
Psa 119:48;
Jer 1:16;
Jer 44:10;
Eze 5:6-7;
Eze 11:12;
Eze 11:20;
Eze 18:9;
Eze 18:17-21;
Eze 20:11-16;
Eze 20:19-24;
Eze 36:27;
Eze 37:24;
Eze 44:24;
Zec 1:6;
Mal 4:4).
Note that the previous bolded reference is a prophecy of an end-time Jesus Christ with
all of the statutes and judgments as inviolate. Otherwise, God, Himself, says
there is more to His Law than just the Commandments:
Gen 26:5:
"Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept
my charge,4931
my commandments,4687
my statutes,2708
and my laws."8451
Exo 16:28:
"And the LORD said unto Moses, How long refuse ye to keep
my commandments4687
and my laws?"8451
Notice, in those verses, that He iterates both His Commandments and His
Laws separately. Notice, also, that it is the same Strong's number (H8451,
the "Torah", the entire first five books of the Bible) for the word
"laws." By the same token, God states that the new covenant is not just
the Ten Commandments, but the entire law of the Torah (H8451
in the Hebrew and G3551
in the Greek):
Jer 31:31-33:
"... (33) But this shall be the covenant1285
that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law8451
in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be
my people."
Heb 8:8-10:
"... (10) For this is the covenant1242
that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws3551
into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall
be to me a people:"
Heb 10:15-17:
"Whereof the Holy Ghost also is a witness to us: for after that he had said
before, (16) This is the covenant1242
that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws3551
into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them; (17)
And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more."
So... What is being thrown out if one throws out the first five books of the Bible
by "nailing them to His cross," as they propose? They are still indirectly throwing out
the Ten Commandments, of course, which are the most prominent feature of those five books (in both
Exodus 20 and
Deuteronomy 5).
Then, breaking the following statutes would also no longer constitute "sin" —
though this is not an exhaustive list:
Then... Note that God intended to speak, for Himself, not only the words of
the Ten Commandments to the people; but, also, all of the words of the Statutes and the
Judgments. The people, however, would not allow the Lord to continue
(Exo 20:19)
and begged Moses to go up into the mountain
(Deu 5:23-27)
to hear the rest of the Lord's Words
(Deu 5:28-33).
Verse 31 is of particular note.
Deu 5:31:
"But as for thee, stand thou here by me, and I will speak unto thee all the commandments,4687
and the statutes,2706
and the judgments,4941
which thou shalt teach them, that they may do them in the land which I give them to
possess it."
I'm sure one can agree that doing away with the Laws of God would be
nothing more than a deception of the devil. So... From where do the churches
claim to draw this deception of the devil that the Law of Moses was nailed to
the cross? Let's read:
Col 2:13-17:
"And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh,
hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;
(14) blotting out the handwriting of ordinances1378
that was against us, which was contrary to us,
(15) and took it out of the
way, nailing it to his cross; and having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a
show of them openly, triumphing over them in it.
(16) Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in
respect of a holy day, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:
(17) which are a shadow of things to come; but the body
is of Christ."
The first question that must be answered is, "Are any of God's Laws, or
part of God's Laws, against us?" No, for if you say that, implicitly or explicitly,
then you say that God, Himself, is against us
(Joh 3:16-17;
2Ti 1:7-9)
— as His Laws are a transcript of His Character and He is Love
(1Jn 4:8;
1Jn 5:3).
But, God's Laws are a witness against us
(Deu 31:26)
for the Law was given to show us our sins
(Rom 3:20).
If we have nothing to show us we are sinful, then we will not recognize our need of a Savior
(Act 4:10-12).
What is against us is the written record of our sins
(Deu 31:28-29)
— for that record is in opposition to the witness of the Law. The first part of
Col 2:13
brings that out clearly. So verse 14 and 15 tells us that, through His sacrifice,
Jesus Christ made it possible for the written record of our sins to be blotted out —
i.e., no longer held against us and placing us under penalty of the second death
(2Ti 1:8-10).
The second question is, "What are verses 16 and 17 trying to tell us?" To
start with, let's (#1) leave out any italicized words (which were included by the
translators and are not in the original text), and grammatically omit (#2) the list
of items being talked about, and (#3) the sub-parenthetical phrase describing
the list, so that we can see just the basic premise:
Col 2:16-17:
"Let no man therefore judge you ... but the body of Christ."
Well! I think that certainly sheds the light of truth on this issue. The
Christian's only rightful judge is the "body of Christ." But, hold on a
second... The common understanding for the definition of the "body of Christ"
is the "church." Yet, in this life, we are to pass judgment on no man. If you
think about it, though, there is another definition for the
"body of Christ" (which I heard in a sermon by Pastor Ivor Meyers at
an ASI
Convention recently).
Joh 6:53-58:
"Then Jesus said unto them, 'Verily, verily, I say unto
you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you.
(54) Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life;
and I will raise him up, at the last day.
(55) For my flesh is meat indeed, and my blood is drink indeed.
(56) He that eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, dwelleth in me,
and I in him.
(57) As the living Father hath sent me, and I live by the Father: so he
that eateth me, even he shall live by me.
(58) This is that bread which came down from heaven: not as your fathers
did eat manna, and are dead: he that eateth of this bread shall live forever.'"
Well, Jesus Christ is the WORD
(Joh 1:1-3,14)
and just as John was to eat the little book
(Rev 10:1-2,8-9),
so eating Jesus' flesh is symbolic language for making the Word of God an
integral part of our daily life. (As an aside, just as the blood sustains the
flesh, so Jesus was sustained by the Holy Spirit and the Holy Spirit inspired
the Word of God — thus, drinking Jesus' blood is symbolic language for asking
for the filling of the Holy Spirit.) So, getting back to Colossians 2:16-17,
we will be judged by the precepts taught us in the Word of God.
Now that we have the basic premise figured out, let's address what we
previously left out:
Col 2:16-17:
"Let no man therefore judge you in meat,1035
or in drink,4213
or in respect of a holy day,1859
or of the new moon,3561
or of the sabbath:4521
(17) which are a shadow of things to come..."
The first thing that one absolutely must not ignore is those last four
words shown above, "...of things to come..." What does that tell you? The
things listed in verse 16 are shadows of something which has not yet
come! What did Jesus say?
Mat 5:17-18:
"Think not that I am come to destroy the law [of Moses],3551
or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill.
(18) For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and
earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law [of Moses],3551
till all be fulfilled."
Thus, since they are shadows of things yet to come, then that
also means they are not yet all fulfilled and are thus, also, all still
binding! So, instead of these verses telling us that the Law of Moses was nailed to the
cross, they are instead telling us that the entire Law of Moses is still
binding and it was only the record of our sins which was nailed to His
cross. Note that I included two bracketed phrases to make it clear, from the meaning
of Strong's G3551,
just what law is being talked about.
Where else might the churches claim to draw this deception of the devil
that the Law of Moses was abolished by Christ's Sacrifice? Let's read:
Eph 2:13-17:
"But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far
off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.
(14) For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath
broken down the middle wall of partition [between Jew and Gentile];
(15) Having abolished in his flesh the enmity [between Jew
and Gentile], even the law of commandments
contained in ordinances; for to make in himself
of twain, one new man, so making peace;
(16) And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body
by the cross, having slain the enmity [between Jew and Gentile] thereby:
(17) And came and preached peace to you which were afar off,
and to them that were nigh."
I included the same three bracketed phrases to make it clear, from the
context, just what is being talked about. The perceived problem, though, comes
in the middle part of verse 15:
Eph 2:15:
"Having abolished in his flesh ...
the law3551
of commandments1785
in ordinances1378
..."
So... What was abolished by Christ's fleshly sacrifice? For one, the
division between Jew and Gentile — which makes it possible for the Gentile to
be grafted into the Branch and to become a spiritual Jew
(Rom 11:17).
But, more to the point, what "law of commandments in ordinances" did Christ
abolish? It can't be all ordinances (because Strong's G1378
is "a law") because, then, we are back to "without the law there can be no sin"
and, therefore, no need of a Savior. Besides that, the Apostle Paul enjoins us
to keep ordinances and taught their requirement himself:
Rom 13:1-2:
"Let every soul be subject unto the higher powers.
For there is no power but of God: the powers that be are ordained of God.
(2) Whosoever therefore resisteth the power, resisteth the
ordinance of God: and they that resist shall receive to themselves damnation."
1Co 11:1-2:
"Be ye followers of me, even as I also
am of Christ.
(2) Now I praise you, brethren, that ye remember me in all things,
and keep the ordinances, as I delivered them to you."
Well, since He was(is) the Supreme Sacrifice, it seems obvious (to me, at
least) that His Sacrifice should take the place of the sacrificial system of
ordinances surrounding the Ceremonial Law — for those sacrifices and oblations
(Dan 9:27)
served no more purpose than to point to Him. This is also why the Lord's Supper
(as observed on the eve which begins the Passover Day) should replace the Passover Supper
(as observed on the eve which ends the Passover Day).
Note, though, that this does not abolish any other of God's Laws.
If it did, then Jesus would be made a liar by His words of
Matthew 5:17-18.
Thus, His Sacrifice does not abolish the Ten Commandments, the Statutes, or the
Judgments. The Statutes include, as outlined in
Leviticus 23:2-3,
the Seventh-day Sabbath (on which twice as many animal sacrifices were performed than
another other day of the year) nor does it abolish the statutes of the feast days
(Lev 23:14,21,31,41).
All of these memorial days are not about the sacrifices which were performed on them, but
these days also point both backward and forward as "...a shadow of things to come."
(Col 2:16-17)
Sometimes we must let go of man's traditions where we have been
taught that certain passages of Scripture mean certain things. Like the "noble Bereans"
(Act 17:10-13)
we must study, not wrest, the Scriptures to find what truths lie there.
We must not forget that the Bible, as a whole, agrees with itself. There are so
many Scriptures which state that God's Feasts have the same beginning (e.g.,
Gen 1:14,
Gen 19:1-3,
Psa 81:3-5)
and the same ending (e.g.,
Mat 5:17-19)
as all of His Other Laws. Even His Ceremonial Laws were not abolished — merely
substituted — from type to anti-type and from symbol to reality.
His Feasts, on the other hand, cannot be merely substituted because they do much more than
merely point to Christ's Sacrifice. They are a tri-fold prophecy spanning the entire
Plan of Salvation and will not be entirely fulfilled until satan and his angels are no more
and the Earth is made New.
I digress to speak directly of the Feasts. The reason for
this is I get the distinct impression that the whole reason for wanting to
"throw out" the "Laws of Moses" is for the sole purpose of trying to get rid
of God's Feast Days. Classifying the Feasts in with the Ceremonial Laws
also seems like an excuse to get rid of the Feasts. I understand this
from satan's point of view — as the Feasts testify (yeah, prophesy) concerning
the Plan of Salvation. But I don't understand this from the point of
view of the Church. So, proof they are not yet entirely fulfilled?
- The Feast of Passover — this feast was first fulfilled at
the beginning of the Exodus Experience. The final Plague of Egypt
passed over those whom had the blood of the lamb on the door posts of their
homes. It was fulfilled the second time when Christ became the True
Passover Lamb of God and placed His Blood upon the posts of the Cross for
us. This feast will be fulfilled the third time, during end-time
events, when the Seven Last Plagues pass over those whom have the Blood of
the Lamb upon the door posts of their hearts.
- The Feast of Unleavened Bread — this feast
prophesies concerning getting sin out of our lives. It was fulfilled
the first time when God removed His People from their bondage to the
Egyptians. I was fulfilled the second time when Christ paid the Price
to purchase His People back from the bondage of Death in Sin. But Christ's
Crucifixion was only the promise of a future literal fulfillment when He
physically removes His People from the bondage of this world and Sin
is destroyed forever.
- The Feast of the Wave Sheaf — this feast is a feast of first
fruits and was fulfilled when the graves were opened on the Friday of the Crucifixion
(Mat 27:50-53)
as Christ took these first fruits with Him on Sunday morning when He Ascended to
His Father. That Sunday morning happened to also be the day of the Feast of the Wave Sheaf
that year and
Christ presented His Wave Sheaf (the group of resurrected saints) to His Father
at the 3rd hour just as indicated in the symbolic service. Of course,
He was also Sacrificed at the 9th hour just as indicated in the symbolic
service.
- The Feast of Pentecost — this feast prophesies concerning
the outpouring of the Holy Spirit upon His People. It was fulfilled
the first time when God poured out His Spirit upon His People during the
Sinai Experience on the Day of Pentecost. It was fulfilled the second
time, as the Early Rain, in
the book of Acts on the Day of Pentecost, again. However,
Joel 2:28-31
prophesies in support of this feast that it is yet to happen again.
Malachi 4:5-6
also prophesies an Elijah message which will turn the hearts of the children back to
the feasts of the fathers. This feast is also a feast of first fruits.
The 144,000 will become this group of first fruits when the Latter Rain is
poured out upon God's Church.
- The Feast of Trumpets — this feast prophesies concerning a
warning of impending judgment. Is there not another Judgment Day to come?
Does not Ellen White tell of how an announcement will come from Heaven itself for
all the saints to hear of the day and the hour of His Coming? She also tells us
(The
Great Controversy (1888), page 399.2-.3)
that the final, end-time events must be fulfilled
according to the timings of the symbolic service (which was given as an
example for our instruction). Thus, it seems to
me, that this announcement will come on the literal Feast of Trumpets in that
selfsame day — just as I now believe that the final outpouring of the
Holy Spirit, upon the 144,000, will commence on the Feast of Pentecost, again.
- The Day of Atonement — this feast prophesies concerning
both a time for afflicting our souls before the Lord and a time in which He
desires to be One with us and seeks to make us One with Him. It was
fulfilled the first time during the Sinai Experience. It was fulfilled
the second time during the Incarnation Experience — i.e., I feel there
is evidence to suggest He was most likely circumcised on the Day of Atonement and was
baptized on the Day of Atonement. Thus, it seems to me His 2nd Coming will
also be on the
Day of Atonement. Does Ellen White not also tell us that we will be afflicting
our souls during the Time of Jacob's Trouble to see if there be any sin in us?
- The Feast of Tabernacles — this feast prophesies concerning
God's desire to tabernacle (dwell) with us — His People. He did it
the first time
in the Wilderness. He did it the second time in the Incarnation. But He is still, yet,
to do it again, for the final time, during the Millennium and in the Earth made New.
- The Last Great Day of the Lord — this is the eighth day
of the Feast of Tabernacles. Ellen White tells us we will spend seven days
journeying back to Heaven after His 2nd Coming. Do you not see this means
that the Marriage Supper of the Lamb will take place on the Last Great Day of
the Lord — as prophesied to us by His Feasts?
It is a terrible thing that we Seventh-Day Adventists have been missing out on
all this very important information which, I believe, is also very pertinent to our salvation.
Not "salvational" mind you, though if one rejects these truths it would certainly
indicate a problem in that person's relationship with Jesus. After all... Remember how
Jesus Christ "...beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all
the Scriptures the things concerning Himself."
(Luk 24:27)
How much more His Feasts testify and prophesy of Him and of the Great Plan of
Salvation!
To take this even a step further, here's my Sep. 14, 2007 prophecy... We
Seventh-Day Adventists have been too at ease; basking in the light of the
straight talk from the Catholic Church which holds up the Seventh-Day Adventist
Church as the one which follows the Bible. Well, one day the Catholic Church is going
to stand up and shake the Seventh-Day Adventist Church to its core in
embarrassment in front of the whole world. The Catholic Church is going to
correctly point out, to the world, that even the Seventh-Day Adventist Church is
one more of the Daughters of the Mother Church because we, too, are an image to the
Beast. The Catholic Church is going to correctly show the world that mother
church is
responsible for doing away with the Feasts of the Bible, where there is no
Biblical basis, and setting up its own "Beast Days" in their place. After all,
how many Seventh-Day Adventists continue to observe St. Valentine's Day,
St. Patrick's Day, Easter, Halloween, Christmas, etc., which were established by
the Catholic Church? So, for what is the Catholic
Church waiting? They are probably waiting for the Seventh-Day Adventist
Church to make it an official part of their doctrine (because it's not official,
currently; it is only tradition) that the Feasts were done away with at the
Cross. At that time, the Catholic Church will pounce.
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